Obvious homework question, so hints please:
Suppose $a,b \in{\mathbb{Z}_+}$ and $c=\text{gcd}(a,b)$. So we know $\exists{x,y}\in{\mathbb{Z}}$ so that $a=cx$ and $b=cy$. Show that $\text{gcd}(x,y)=1$.
A hint was provided with the question, but I can't seem to get anywhere with it.
Begin by setting $d=\text{gcd}(x,y)$. How are $d$ and $x$ related? How are $d$ and $y$ related? What does this say about $a$ and $b$ in terms of $d$?
I realise I'm probably just missing something obvious, but I don't know what to do.
$x=dx',y=dy'\implies a=(cd)x', b=(cd)y'$ and so $cd$ is a common divisor of $a$ and $b$.
This implies that $cd \mid c$ (or $cd \le c$), which can only happen if $d=1$.