Apparently the following equals 2, what I'm getting though is 0.
Where is the mistake?
Find: $ \lim\limits_{x\rightarrow0} \frac{x^2}{1 - cosx} $
$ \lim\limits_{x\rightarrow0} \frac{x*x}{1 - cosx} $ (expand numerator)
$ \lim\limits_{x\rightarrow0} x*\frac{x}{1 - cosx} $ (move x outside numerator)
$ \lim\limits_{x\rightarrow0} x $ * $ \lim\limits_{x\rightarrow0}\frac{x}{1 - cosx} $ (product property of limits)
$ \lim\limits_{x\rightarrow0} x $ * $ \lim\limits_{x\rightarrow0}\left(\frac{1 - cosx}{x}\right)^{-1} $ (inverse the fraction of the second limit)
$ \lim\limits_{x\rightarrow0} x = 0 $ , and we know also that $ \lim\limits_{x\rightarrow0}\left(\frac{1 - cosx}{x}\right)=0 $
Therefore:
$ 0 * 0^{-1} $
$=0$
First of all, dividing by zero is a tricky business; statements like $0 \cdot 0^{-1} = 0$ make a mathematician shiver.
So the first step would be acknowledging that we are dealing with an indeterminacy; therefore, we should try to get rid of it.
Applying L'Hôpital's rule twice we get:
$$ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{x^2}{1 - \cos x} = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{2x}{\sin x} = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{2}{\cos x} = 2 $$
Without L'Hôpital's rule, and remembering that $\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{sin x}{x} = 1$, we can do something like:
$$ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{x^2}{1 - \cos x} = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{x^2}{2 \sin^2 (\frac{x}{2})} = \lim_{x \to 0} 2 \cdot \frac{(\frac{x}{2})^2}{sin^2 \frac{x}{2}} = \lim_{x \to 0} 2 \cdot (\frac{\frac{x}{2}}{sin \frac{x}{2}})^2 = \lim_{x \to 0} 2 \cdot (\frac{sin \frac{x}{2}}{\frac{x}{2}})^{-2} = \lim_{x \to 0} 2 \cdot 1^{-2} = 2 $$