In a complex analysis test an exercise asks to calculate ($w \in \Bbb{R}$): $$\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{\sin^2(x)\cos(wx)}{x^2}dx$$ Of course I need to solve it with complex analysis technique. I have used all the tricks I know such as integrate on a semi-circumference of radius $R$ in $\Bbb{C}$ and then let $R \to \infty$ but everything I have tried to do just seemed useless. Thank you for every hint or solution to this problem!
Calculate $\int\limits_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{\sin^2(x)\cos(wx)}{x^2}dx$ using complex analysis technique
127 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtThere are 3 best solutions below
On
$$I(w)=\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{\sin^2(x)\cos(wx)}{x^2}dx$$ $$I'(w)=-\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{\sin^2(x)\sin(wx)}{x}$$ $$I''(w)=-\int_{-\infty}^\infty\sin^2(x)\cos(wx)dx$$ $$I''(w)=-\Re\int_{-\infty}^\infty\sin^2(x)e^{iwx}dx$$ and then try integration by parts. Alternatively: $$I(w)=\Re\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{\sin^2(x)e^{iwx}}{x^2}dx$$ $$I(w)=\Re\int_{-\infty}^\infty\sin^2(x)\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(iw)^nx^{n-2}}{n!}dx$$
On
This is certainly not a complex analytic method, but Fourier inversion formula also can give you the result. It holds that
$$
\int_{-1}^1 e^{-i\xi x}dx=\frac{2\sin \xi}{\xi}.
$$ Let $f(x) = 1_{[-1,1]}(x)$. This shows $\widehat{f}(\xi)=\frac{2\sin \xi}{\xi}$ and therefore, $\widehat{(f*f)}(\xi)=f(\xi)^2=4\frac{2\sin^2 \xi}{\xi^2}$.
The given integral is
$$\begin{eqnarray}
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{\sin^2(x)\cos(wx)}{x^2}dx&=&\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{\sin^2(x)e^{iwx}}{x^2}dx\\
&=&2\pi \mathcal{F}^{-1}\left[\frac{\sin^2 x}{x^2}\right](w)\\
&=&\frac{\pi}{2}(f*f)(w).
\end{eqnarray}$$ Finally, we have
$$\begin{eqnarray}
(f*f)(w)&=&\int f(w-y)f(y)dy\\
&=&\int_{|w-y|<1,|y|<1}dy\\
&=&\begin{cases}2-w,\quad w\in[0,2)\\2+w,\quad w\in(-2,0]\\0,\quad|w|>2\end{cases}\\
&=&(2-|w|)1_{|w|<2}.
\end{eqnarray}$$ This gives that the given integral is equal to
$$
\frac{\pi}{2}(2-|w|)1_{|w|<2}.
$$
If I had to use complex methods in this, the place I'd do it is in proving$$\int_{\mathbb{R}}\frac{\sin^{2}x}{x^{2}}dx=\pi$$(e.g. by the residue theorem; see here for the gory details) so$$\left|k\right|\pi=\int_{\mathbb{R}}\frac{\sin^{2}kx}{x^{2}}dx=\int_{\mathbb{R}}\frac{1-\cos2kx}{2x^{2}}dx.$$Hence$$\int_{\mathbb{R}}\frac{\sin^{2}x\cos wx}{x^{2}}dx=\int_{\mathbb{R}}\frac{2\cos wx-\cos\left(w-2\right)x-\cos\left(w+2\right)x}{4x^{2}}dx\\=\frac{\pi}{4}\left(\left|w-2\right|+\left|w+2\right|-2\left|w\right|\right).$$As a sanity check, the case $w=0$ needs to give $\pi$, and lo and behold it does.