So it is obvious that this limit goes to $0$. I can reason that it does, say some hand-wavy things like "The bottom goes to infinity while top stays at $1$ and so the limit is $0$", but there is no rigor in that. If I wanted a rigid proof would I just apply the squeeze theorem? squeeze it between $0$ and $\frac{1}{x^2}$? Or is there an easier more straightforward way.
Thanks.
HINT:
Can you finish the rest? I have provided the hidden answer below. Look if you are truly stuck!