My problem is that I'm thinking I'm supposed to use L'Hôpital on $f(x)$ but I don't get how this is supposed to be possible with the numerator converging to $-1$.
What I'd idealy want is something like $\sin(ax)$ to converge to $0$.
$$\lim\limits_{x \to 0} f(x) = \lim\limits_{x \to 0} \frac{ax -\cos(ax)} {ax^2} = \frac {-1} 0 = -\infty $$
Am I doing it wrong/ overlooking something?
I'm also supposed to use Taylor Series Approximation for
$$\cos(x) = \sum_{k=0}^\infty (-1)^k \frac{x^{2k}}{2k!}$$
I have no idea how to approach that. What would be my stating point to use Taylor?
It's not an indeterminate form, so you can't apply L'Hôpital. In fact, the limit is $$\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{ax - cos(ax)}{ax^2} = \lim_{x\to 0}\frac{x-\frac{cos(ax)}{a}}{x^2} = \frac{-\infty}{a}$$
If you want to use Taylor series, as $x \to 0$ then
$$\cos(x) = \sum_{k=0}^\infty (-1)^k \frac{x^{2k}}{2k!}$$
So we can use it in our limit:
$$\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{ax - cos(ax)}{ax^2} = \lim_{x\to 0}\frac{ax - \frac{1}{2} + \frac{(ax)^2}{2} - \frac{(ax)^4}{4} + o\left((ax)^6\right)}{ax^2} = \ldots$$