I need to calculate:
$$ \begin{bmatrix} 1&1\\ -1&3 \end{bmatrix}^{50} $$
The solution i have uses jordan form and get to:
There are some points that i dont understand:
$1.$ In the right upper corner of the matrix, last line of the solution, he changed the $1$ to $50 \cdot 2^{49}$ why? how?
$2.$ What is the $P_A$? He didnt realy get to a final solution... where is the asnwer? how do i get to $P_A$?

There are two ways to construct a change of basis matrix $P$ for Jordan form. The way I like is to take the matrix $A-2I,$ which squares to the $0$ matrix, and pick a column vector it does NOT annihilate. I like to put in a single 1 if I can, so let the column vector $v$ be $v=(0,1)^T.$ Then the left column is $u = (A-2I)v,$ so that $$ P = \left( \begin{array}{rr} 1 & 0 \\ 1 & 1 \end{array} \right) $$
of determinant $1,$ which helps. keep the inverse with small denominator, namely $1.$ $$ P^{-1} = \left( \begin{array}{rr} 1 & 0 \\ -1 & 1 \end{array} \right) $$
$$ \left( \begin{array}{rr} 1 & 0 \\ -1 & 1 \end{array} \right) \left( \begin{array}{rr} 1 & 1 \\ -1 & 3 \end{array} \right) \left( \begin{array}{rr} 1 & 0 \\ 1 & 1 \end{array} \right) = J = \left( \begin{array}{rr} 2 & 1 \\ 0 & 2 \end{array} \right) $$
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