I want to solve the following equation
$$f(x) = \frac{x \cosh(x) - \sinh(x)}{x^2} = 0$$
Because the term above is undefined for $x = 0$ I calcuted
$$\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}\frac{x \cosh(x) - \sinh(x)}{x^2} =0$$
So the function has one root at "$x =0$", but how can I show that for any $x \neq 0$ it does not have any root?
I transformed it to
$$x = \frac{\sinh(x)}{\cosh(x)} =\tanh(x)$$
But I do not get a idea how to show it formally. I would appreciate any hint.
If you're looking for a solution without complex analysis (assuming from your real analysis tag), we can apply calculus.
Let $f(x) = x - \tanh(x)$. Then $f'(x) = 1 - \text{sech}^2(x) = \tanh^2(x) \geq 0,$ with equality if and only if $x = 0$. Since $f$ is smooth, it is increasing on the interval $(-\infty,\infty)$, so the only solution is $x = 0$. But the original function is not defined at $x = 0$, so the equation has no real solutions.