Given $a_1a_2+b_1b_2+c_1c_2=0$ calculate:
$$\int\int\int_{x^2+y^2+z^2<1}(a_1x+b_1y+c_1z)(a_2x+b_2y+c_2z)\,\mathrm dx\,\mathrm dy\,\mathrm dz.$$
My intuition is that it's $0$ and I need to find some change of basis to flip the sign of the integral, but I'm struggling to find it.
Any help?
Your intuition is right.
The function you integrate can be represented as $(r*a)(r*b)$, where $a$ and $b$ are vectors.
These two vectors are perpendicular to each other, so you can now turn the basis so that one axis is parallel to vector $a$, and another one - parallel to vector $b$. In this basis the function you need to integrate looks much more simple: $(r*a)(r*b) = A*x*B*y$. ($A$ and $B$ are the lengths of the vectors $a$ and $b$). So, you need to calculate:
$\int\int\int_{x^2+y^2+z^2<1}(A*x*B*y)dxdydz$
Now just note, that for each small volume around some point (x, y, z) there exists a corresponding small volume around (-x, y, z) where the function has opposite value. So the integral is 0.