using Stirling's formula or the fact that $e^n \geq \frac{n^n}{n!}$.
one finds that the limit goes to $+\infty$
however, I found another result (probably false) using this method :
$$n!^{\frac1n} = e^{\frac1n\ln n!} = e^{\frac1n \sum_{k=1}^{n}\ln k} = \exp(\frac{\ln 2}{n} + \frac{\ln 3}{n} + \cdots+\frac{\ln n}{n} ) $$
$\frac{\ln 2}{n} + \frac{\ln 3}{n} + \cdots+\frac{\ln n}{n} \to 0$
and $x \mapsto e^x$ is continuous. "Hence" $\lim_{n \to \infty} n!^{\frac1n} = 1$
I can't spot the mistake.
what did I do wrong ?
Note that $$\frac{\ln 2}{n} + \frac{\ln 3}{n} + \cdots+\frac{\ln n}{n} =(1/n)[\ln 2+\ln 3+...+\ln n]$$
The integral $$\int _e^n (lnx) dx = n(ln( n) -1)$$
approximates $$\ln2+\ln 3+...+\ln n$$ which contradicts your assumption of $$\frac{\ln 2}{n} + \frac{\ln 3}{n} + \cdots+\frac{\ln n}{n}\to 0$$