Trying to reinvent the spirit of Calculus, I was trying to Understand the Leibniz Rule of Differentiation under Integration sign. To check my understanding, I was considering this integral: $$ I(b) = \int^1_0 \frac{x \log(b + x)}{1 + x^2} dx $$ After some simplification, I came upon the Integral in question: $$ 2I(1) = \frac{1}{4} \log^2{2} + \frac{\pi^2}{16} + 2\int^1_0\frac{b \log b}{1 + b^2} db $$
Now I am a bit confused about how to progress. Maxima shows the answer to be $-\frac{\pi^2}{48}$.
This is not a homework problem.
$$ \begin{align} \int_0^1\frac{x\log(x)}{1+x^2}\,\mathrm{d}x &=\sum_{k=0}^\infty\int_0^1(-1)^kx^{2k+1}\log(x)\,\mathrm{d}x\tag1\\ &=\sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^{k+1}}{(2k+2)^2}\tag2\\ &=\frac14\sum_{k=1}^\infty\frac{(-1)^k}{k^2}\tag3\\ &=-\frac14\left(\sum_{k=1}^\infty\frac1{k^2}-2\sum_{k=1}^\infty\frac1{(2k)^2}\right)\tag4\\ &=-\frac{\pi^2}{48}\tag5 \end{align} $$ Explanation:
$(1)$: expand $\frac{x}{1+x^2}$ into a geometric series
$(2)$: integrate by parts: $u=\log(x)$, $\mathrm{d}v=x^{2k+1}\,\mathrm{d}x$
$(3)$: substitute $k\mapsto k-1$
$(4)$: an alternating sum is all the terms minus twice the even terms
$(5)$: $\zeta(2)=\frac{\pi^2}6$