The above integral appeared while trying to calculate the Fisher-information of a Cauchy-distributed sample in my statistics homework. I plugged it into Wolfram Alpha, which gives the answer $\frac \pi 8$, and it's also able to find the indefinite integral, but I'm unable to infer what method it used.
So far, I have tried substituting a couple things, such as $(1 + x^2)$, $x^2$, or $(1 + x^2)^3$, but nothing seems to have worked. I also tried integrating by parts, integrating the $x^2$ on the top and differentiating the denominator, but this also doesn't work out. I also tried splitting the integral by writing the $x^2$ in the nominator as $(1 + x^2) - 1$, but this isn't fruitful either.
I am of course aware that I'm supposed to get an $\arctan$ somewhere in there, but I have no idea how to sneak it into the expression.
I'm sure someone among the userbase here has faced a similar integral before, can I maybe get a hint on how to proceed? What is the trick here?
You can compute it using residues. The function$$\begin{array}{rccc}f\colon&\Bbb C\setminus\{\pm i\}&\longrightarrow&\Bbb C\\&z&\mapsto&\dfrac{z^2}{(z^2+1)^3}\end{array}$$is a rational function whose numerator has degree $2$ and whose denominator has degree $6$; in particular, $\lim_{z\to\infty}zf(z)=0$. Furthermore, it has one and only one singularity in the upper half-plane, located at $i$. So\begin{align}\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)\,\mathrm dx&=2\pi i\operatorname{res}_{z=i}f(z)\\&=2\pi i\times\left(\frac{-i}{16}\right)\\&=\frac\pi8.\end{align}