Some may consider this a duplicate, but the only similar question I have found make use of Stirling's identity and then conclude the result. I would like to try and avoid this and so would like a more elementary approach of solving the problem.
This is my progress so far:
I think the following is true (and the limit I'm trying to calculate would follow immediately):
For every $k\in\mathbb{N}$, for sufficiently large $n$ we have $n! > k^{n}$
I'm not sure how to prove this result, but it would be equivalent to proving that
For sufficiently large $n$, $\sum_{i=1}^{n} \log_{k}i > n$ for any $k \in \mathbb{N}$.
Would somebody be able to provide a hint on how to proceed, and whether or not my method could be fruitful?
Among the $n$ numbers $1,\ldots, n$, at least half of them is $\ge \frac{n}{2}$ while the rest is $\ge 1$.
When $n \ge 2$, this leads to
$$n! \ge \left(\frac{n}{2}\right)^{\# \{ k\,:\,\frac{n}{2} \le k \le n\} } \ge \left(\frac{n}{2}\right)^{\frac{n}{2}}\quad \implies\quad \sqrt[n]{n!} \ge \sqrt{\frac{n}{2}}$$
As a result, $\sqrt[n]{n!}$ diverges to $\infty$ as $n \to \infty$.