I have a function defined as:
$f(z)=\frac{\Gamma{(z)}+1}{z}$
Are there any $z ∈ C$ (with nonzero imaginary part) such that $f(z)∈R$?
I tried substituting in $z=a+bi$ with $b≠0$ into the product and integral definitions of the Gamma function, but with little effect.
EDIT:
$f(z)=\frac{\Gamma{(z)}+1}{z}$
$f(a+bi)=\frac{\Gamma(a+bi)}{a+bi}+\frac{1}{a+bi}$
Introduce the variable $R$, denoting a real number. Then let $R=f(a+bi)$:
$R=\frac{\Gamma(a+bi)}{a+bi}+\frac{a-bi}{a^2+b^2}$
By definition $\Im(R)=0$. Re-arranging we get:
$R-\frac{a}{a^2+b^2}+\frac{b}{a^2+b^2}·i=\frac{\Gamma(a+bi)}{a+bi}$
Because $R$ can be any real number, the 'real' part of the equation may always be true for some R. Therefore, equating the $\Im$ parts of each side of the equation, we get:
$\frac{b}{b^2+a^2}=\Im(\frac{(a-bi)\Gamma(a+bi)}{a^2+b^2})$
Because $a,b$ are strictly real numbers, $a^2+b^2$ must be real and the same on both sides.
Therefore,
$b=\Im((a-bi)\Gamma(a+bi))$
$b=\Im((a\Gamma(a+bi)-bi\Gamma(a+bi))$
$b=a\Im(\Gamma(a+bi))-b\Re(\Gamma(a+bi))$
It follows that:
$\frac{b}{a}=\frac{\Im(\Gamma(a+bi))}{1+\Re(\Gamma(a+bi))}$
Adding 1 to both sides:
$\frac{b}{a}+1=\frac{\Im(\Gamma(a+bi))}{1+\Re(\Gamma(a+bi))}+\frac{1+\Re(\Gamma(a+bi))}{1+\Re(\Gamma(a+bi))}$
$\frac{b}{a}+1=\frac{\Gamma(a+bi)+1}{1+\Re(\Gamma(a+bi))}$
EDIT II It turns out I may have proceeded incorrectly in the last step. You see, the last equation re-arranges to:
$\frac{z}{\Re(z)} = \frac{\Gamma(z)+1}{1+\Re(\Gamma(z))}$
And consequently:
$\frac{1+\Re(\Gamma(a+bi))}{\Re(z)} = \frac{\Gamma(z)+1}{z}$, which is the normal, real number solution. (i.e. $b=0$).
If we go back a few steps and instead eliminate the real part, we get the following:
$\frac{b}{a}=\frac{\Im(\Gamma(a+bi))}{1+\Re(\Gamma(a+bi))}$
$\frac{a}{b}=\frac{1+\Re(\Gamma(a+bi))}{\Im(\Gamma(a+bi))}$
Now, adding 1, we get:
$\frac{a}{b}+1=\frac{1+\Re(\Gamma(a+bi))+\Im(\Gamma(a+bi))}{\Im(\Gamma(a+bi))}$
$\frac{z}{\Im(z)}=\frac{1+\Gamma(z)}{\Im(\Gamma(z))}$
Therefore, if $z=a+bi$ with $b≠0$ then the only time when $f(z)$ can be real is when:
$f(z)=\frac{\Im(\Gamma(z))}{\Im(z)}$







The derivative of $f$ vanishes at many points on the real axis (at least once between every consecutive negative integers, just by looking at the limits there)
On some small enough complex neghbourhoods of those points, $f$ is then at least $2$-to-$1$, which means that there are complex inputs to $f$ that give real outputs.