Is it true that only kind of relations that can completely and uniquely define a partition in a set is the equivalence relation ?
I'm having a hard problem believing that.
Given an original set $A = \{a,b,c,d\}$ and certain partition $\{P_1,P_2\}$ where $P_1 = \{a,b,d\}$ and $P_2 = \{c\}$ I could introduce a relation (not equivalence relation) $A \rightarrow A = \{ (a,d),(a,b),(b,d),(c,c) \}$ and from that relation I could still uniquely partition the original set $A$ into $\{P_1,P_2\}$. How? Well the informal process of building subsets out of the ordered pairs, one-by-one.
First $(a,d)$ implies a subset that contains $a,d$.
then $(a,b)$ implies a subset that contains $a,b,d$ (by transitive property).
then $(b,d)$ adds no information
then $(c,c)$ implies a subset containing $c$.
The unique result is the partition $\{a,b,d\}, \{c\}$.
Am I doing something wrong or forgetting something crucial?
It all depends on what exactly you mean by a relation "completely and uniquely defining a partition". In one sense, a partition and an equivalence relation are basically the same thing. That doesn't mean that you can't use other types of relations to define partitions; but it does mean that in doing so you necessarily also define an equivalence relation.
In your example, it seems that you intend to define a partition using the reflexive transitive symmetric closure of a relation $R$. This is the intersection of all equivalence relations containing $R$, or equivalently the unique minimal equivalence relation containing $R$. By defining an equivalence relation, you are at the same time defining a partition.