$$\int_{0}^{\infty} \left(e^{-\frac{1}{x^2}}-e^{-\frac{4}{x^2}}\right) dx$$
I've tried much of the techniques used in the textbook, none have led to anything concrete, or i am not just able to see the answer. Can anyone type out the answer with detail if it's not a problem, it would be very appreciated. I'm in a bit of a rush.. Thankful in advance.
Assume $a>0$ and $b>0$.
You may integrate by parts and use a change of variable, giving $$ \begin{align} \int_{0}^{\infty}\left( e^{-a^2/x^2}-e^{-b^2/x^2} \right)dx&=\left.x\left( e^{-a^2/x^2}-e^{-b^2/x^2} \right)\right|_{0}^{\infty}-2\int_{0}^{\infty}\left( a^2e^{-a^2/x^2}-b^2e^{-b^2/x^2} \right)\frac{dx}{x^2}\\\\ &=-2\int_{0}^{\infty}\left( a^2e^{-a^2u^2}-b^2e^{-b^2u^2} \right)du\quad \left(u:=\frac1x\right)\\\\ &=(b-a)\sqrt{\pi } \end{align} $$ that is
where we have used the gaussian result $$ \int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-c^2u^2}du=c\sqrt{\pi },\quad c>0. $$ Then apply it to $a:=1$ and $b:=2$.