I am studying representation theory on my own and encountered tensor product spaces. I learnt that the space of Bilinear maps on $V\times V$, for a vector space $V$ is isomorphic to $V^* \otimes V^*$ with a 'natural' isomorphism given by the map
\begin{equation} \phi: \alpha_1\otimes \alpha_2 \in V^*\otimes V^* \longrightarrow B: B(v,v') = \alpha_1(v)\alpha_2(v') \end{equation}
I am confused if any Bilinear map on $V\times V$ can be written as $\alpha_1(v)\alpha_2(v')$ as it is not obvious to me. Can someone explain this to me? Thanks for your time.
The considered Solution of mine:
The claim that every bilinear map $B: V \times V \rightarrow k$ can be represented as $\alpha_1(v) \alpha_2(v')$ for some $\alpha_1, \alpha_2 \in V^*$ is not generally true.
The isomorphism between the space of bilinear maps and $V^* \otimes V^*$ is based on a specific choice of basis for $V$. Let $\{v_i\}$ be a basis for $V$, and $\{v_i^*\}$ be its dual basis in $V^*$. The isomorphism $\phi: V^* \otimes V^* \rightarrow \text{Bil}(V \times V, k)$ is given by:
$ \phi(\alpha_1 \otimes \alpha_2)(v, v') = \alpha_1(v) \alpha_2(v') $.
However, this representation depends on the choice of basis. Not every bilinear map can be expressed in the form $\alpha_1(v) \alpha_2(v')$ using the same basis. The isomorphism is "natural" in the sense that it relies on the dual space structure, but it doesn't imply a unique representation for every bilinear map.