I am looking for a simple counter-example to a "theorem" about symmetric functions claimed in a published paper. The claim asserts, among many other things, that there are functions $\sigma$ and $\rho$ such that, for all $x,y\in\mathbb R$, $$ \max(x,y) = \sigma(\rho(x) + \rho(y)). $$ The paper doesn't specify the domain of $\sigma$, which is, of course, also the range of $\rho$. I'll denote this unknown by $G$. And let's assume that $G$ is some well-known type of mathematical object, in which addition is conventionally defined, for example an abelian semigroup.
Can $\sigma$ and $\rho$ be found, if $G$ is an abelian (semi-)group? What if $X$ is a set and $G = \mathbb R^X$ is the set of functions from $X$ to $\mathbb R$?
Actually, since real numbers can't be handled by a Turing machine, and the journal in which the paper appears is devoted to computer science, I would prefer a discussion in which the reals were replaced throughout the passage above by the integers. I expect the claim to be incorrect for any reasonable (non-finite) context.
If the reals are replaced by a finite closed interval of real numbers then any continuous symmetric function can be approximated by a symmetric polynomial, and then one can use Newton's identities to get an approximate result. Possibly this is what the author of the paper at issue was thinking, but not stating.
I'll answer your question for $\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$.
Let $r(x,y) = p(x) + p(y)$. Your question boils down to whether there exists $p$ such that $r$ is injective up to symmetry.
Since $\mathbb{R}$ has uncountable dimension over $\mathbb{Q}$, there exists for each $x \in \mathbb{R}$ some $t_x \in \mathbb{R}$ such that the set $\{t_x \}_x$ is linearly independent. Set $p(x) = t_x$, so $r$ is injective and therefore there exists a $\sigma$ as desired.
(This uses the axiom of choice.)
Edit: I guess, it also uses the continuum hypothesis. I'm guessing there should be a proof avoiding some of these?
Edit 2: As pointed out in the comments, CH is not needed.