Assume that we have a self-adjoint operator $T\colon D \to D$ where $D \subset L^2$ is some finite dimensional subspace. Can I conclude that than a self-adjoint operator $S \colon L^2 \to L^2$ exists with $S=T$ on $D$ ?
Hope someone can help me. Best regards, Adam
Since $D$ is finite dimensional, it is closed. Let $\Pi$ be the orthogonal projection onto $D$, then let $S = \Pi T \Pi$. (Note that the first $\Pi$ is superflous, but makes it obvious that $S$ is self-adjoint.)