I am rederiving some physics stuff (related to Fermi's Golden rule) so I know what the result should be. ( I am a physicist, so I lack some math training.)
However to get this result I have to exchange several operations at some point and I am really unsure why I should be able to do this. The term I have is:
$$ \frac{d}{dt} \left|\lim_{\epsilon \rightarrow 0} \frac{e^{\epsilon t} e^{\mathrm{i} (x -y) t}}{\epsilon + \mathrm{i}( x - y)} \right|^2 $$
If I could just reorder all the operations as much as I want, I would choose: First absolute square, then time derivative, then the limit. This would give me:
$$ \lim_{\epsilon \rightarrow 0} \frac{2 \epsilon e^{2 \epsilon t}}{\epsilon^2 + (x - y)^2} = 2 \pi \delta(x-y) $$ which is what I expected to find at some point in my derivation. But why should this be allowed? Is it allowed in this case?
I tried to read up on when I can exchange two limits when expressing $\frac{d}{dt}$ as a limit. However I think the problem is more special because of the Dirac distribution (?).
I would be happy if someone can give advise here. Thank you very much in advance.
We have
$$\lim_{\epsilon \rightarrow 0} \frac{e^{\epsilon t} e^{\mathrm{i} (x -y) t}}{\epsilon + \mathrm{i}( x - y)}= \frac{e^{i(x-y)t}}{i(x-y)}.$$
Then
$$\left|\lim_{\epsilon \rightarrow 0} \frac{e^{\epsilon t} e^{\mathrm{i} (x -y) t}}{\epsilon + \mathrm{i}( x - y)} \right|^2=\frac{1}{(x-y)^2}.$$