Given:
$f$ has a derivative for every $x \in (0,\infty)$
$f'(x) > x$ for every $x>0$
Can I prove that $f(x+1) - f(x)$ is a monotonic increasing function?
From Lagrange I know that in every $I = [x,x+1]$ where $x>0$, $f(x+1) - f(x) > x$.
$f$ has derivative so $f'(x+1) - f'(x)$ is defined for $x>0$.
But, How can I show that $f'(x+1) - f'(x) > 0$?
Thanks!
Edit: Thank you al for your answers! If I want to prove a weaker statement, that there exists some $M \in \mathbb R$ such that $f'(x+1) - f'(x)$ is increasing in $(M,\infty)$. Is it, then, can be proved?
Thanks again!
You can't. Have a look at $f(x)=\frac12x^2-x^{-1}$. Then $f'(x)=x+\frac 1{x^2}>x$ for all $x>0$ and $f(x+1)-f(x)=\frac12(2x+1)+\frac 1{x^2+x}$. As this tends $\to+\infty$ as $x\to 0^+$, it cannot be increasing on all of $(0,\infty)$.