Is it mathematically correct to claim that?
Thanks.
You can write, for any set $S$, $$ S = \bigcup_{x\in S} \{x\} $$ even though it's not necessarily really... useful.
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You can write, for any set $S$, $$ S = \bigcup_{x\in S} \{x\} $$ even though it's not necessarily really... useful.