For example if I know that $f_n(x)\leq g_n(x) \leq h_n(x)$ for all $x$, then can I say that $ \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} f_n(x)\leq \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} g_n(x) \leq \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} h_n(x)$? If yes, what kind of limit would $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} g_n(x)$ be? The uniform or the pointwise limit?
2026-04-16 15:28:46.1776353326
Can I use the Squeeze theorem with sequences of functions?
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