Let $A,B \in \mathbb R^{n \times n}$.
$A$ and $B$ are similar if there exists $P \in GL(n, \mathbb R)$ such that $AP=PB$.
While we could define something like we can define something like
$A$ and $B$ are 'conjugate' if there exists $P \in \mathbb R^{n \times n}$ such that $AP=PB$,
this would be kind of pointless since we could always pick $P=0$. Of course there are definitions for $A$ and $B$ to be 'conjugate in $X$' for some $X \subseteq \mathbb R^{n \times n}$ (or $X \subseteq GL(n, \mathbb R)$) if there exists $P \in X$ such that $AP=PB$, like here.
Question 1: Is it possible that $AP=PB$ for some nonzero yet non-invertible $P$? I have a feeling I'm missing some obvious counterexample. If no, then please help me prove that $P$ must either be zero or invertible.
Question 2: If yes, then I have a feeling there are infinitely many such $P$'s for any given $A$ and $B$. Is it true that for every $A$ and $B$, there exists such a $P$?
- Context: Bullet 3.1 here
If $A=\left[\begin{smallmatrix}1&0\\0&0\end{smallmatrix}\right]$, $B=\left[\begin{smallmatrix}2&0\\0&0\end{smallmatrix}\right]$, and $P=\left[\begin{smallmatrix}0&0\\0&1\end{smallmatrix}\right]$, then $AP=PB$. However, $P\neq\left[\begin{smallmatrix}0&0\\0&0\end{smallmatrix}\right]$ and $A$ and $B$ are not similar.