I am aware that abelian-subgroups can be found in non-abelian groups. All one must do is consider $gp(\{x\})$.
However, this had me wondering if the other way around was true. I couldn't find anything on the forum that asked this… so here's hoping someone could shed some insight.
If the answer is no, it is sort of interesting because, in a hand-wavey way, I interpret this as meaning that a non-abelian subgroup effectively "taints" the overarching group, stripping it of the ability to be abelian.
This makes me wonder why abelian subgroups do not taint non-abelian groups from being non-abelian. Why does the “abelian property” behave so sensitively while the “non-abelian property” does not?
The answer is negative: If $G$ is an Abelian group and $H$ is a subgroup of $G$, then $H$ is Abelian too. In fact, since$$(\forall g_1,g_2\in G):g_1g_2=g_2g_1,$$then, in particular,$$(\forall g_1,g_2\in H):g_1g_2=g_2g_1.$$
And note that being Abelian means that something always occurs. And being non-Abelian means that that thing sometimes doesn't occur. For such a property, it is clear that if a group has it, every subgroup also has it, but not the other way around.