This question was inspired by this question:
Evaluating the integral $\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\sin{x}}{x} \ dx = \frac{\pi}{2}$?
Well, can anyone prove this without using Residue theory. I actually thought of doing this: $$\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\sin x}{x} \, dx = \lim_{t \to \infty} \int_{0}^{t} \frac{1}{t} \left( t - \frac{t^3}{3!} + \frac{t^5}{5!} + \cdots \right) \, dt$$ but I don't see how $\pi$ comes here, since we need the answer to be equal to $\frac{\pi}{2}$.
Answers were given to the stated question -- how to prove without using Residue theory. Yet the quote suggests an obvious follow-up question: can you prove the integral from the Taylor series expansion directly, somehow?
This post does not derive the result using only Taylor series, but it only uses the fundamental property of complex numbers, that $z = a+bi$.
Euler derived a awesome formula
$$\frac{\Gamma (s)}{n|p|^s}\sin{(\alpha s)}=\int_0^{\infty}u^{ns-1}\exp{(-\Re(p)u^n)}\sin{(\Im(p)u^n)}du$$
Where $tan(\alpha)=\frac{\Im(p)}{\Re(p)}$ Here is an informal proof of the formula https://goo.gl/JKfEO8.
Now use $n=1$, $p=0+i$, $s=0$, $\alpha = \frac{\pi}{2}$. You will also need Eulers Reflection Formula for the Gamma function $$\Gamma(s)\Gamma(1-s)=\frac{\pi}{\sin{(\pi s)}}$$
If you have trouble solving the integral using the formula you can also watch this https://goo.gl/2WPRQH.