I have proved that if $a=0$, then $R[X]/\langle X^2\rangle\not\cong R$
If they are isomorphic then suppose $f:R[X]/\langle X^2\rangle\to R$ is an isomorphism. Then let $c\in R,c\ne 0$ such that $f(\overline{X})=c$. Again we have $\overline{X}\ \overline{X}=\overline{X^2}=0\implies 0=f(0)=c^2$. As $R$ is integral domain, we have $c=0$, contradiction.
Hence $R[X]/\langle X^2\rangle\not\cong R$.
But I am not sure about if $a\ne 0$. By divison algorithm, we can say that $R[X]/\langle X^2-a\rangle=\{\overline{\alpha X+\beta}|\alpha,\beta\in R\}$.
Can anyone help me in this regard?
If there exists $b$ such that $b^2=a$, $\bar X-b$ has a divisor of zero.
If there does not exists $b$ such that $b^2=a$, $X^2-a$ is irreducible in $R$ but not in $R[X]/(X^2-a)$.