Can someone tell me where did that come from, I do all the steps correctly but I don't know where did that$fv*(1)$ come from, thanks!
2026-04-01 17:27:56.1775064476
Can someone tell me where did that come form
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It's due to the product rule. The derivative we're calculating is $$ \begin{split} \frac{\partial (x f_v)}{ \partial x} &= \left(\frac{\partial x}{\partial x} \right) f_v + x \left( \frac{\partial f_v}{\partial x} \right) \\ &= 1\times f_v + x \left( \frac{\partial f_v}{\partial x} \right) \\ \end{split} $$