Could a product of 2 primes equal the product of two other different primes?
Either yes, or no, is there any proof of that?
Could a product of 2 primes equal the product of two other different primes?
Either yes, or no, is there any proof of that?
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No. Suppose that $ab = cd$ for primes $a,b,c,d$. By the definition of a prime $a \mid ab = cd$ implies that $a \mid c$ or $a \mid d$. Since $c,d$ are prime we must have WLOG $a = c$. Dividing by $c$ gives that $b = d$. Hence the claim.