Let $n \in \mathbb N$ be such that for every prime $p$, the following holds: $$p \mid n \implies p^2 \mid n$$ Can we conclude that $n = m^2$ for some $m \in \mathbb N$?
How can I prove or disprove this, I'm not sure where to begin. Thanks.
2026-03-24 20:32:04.1774384324
Can we conclude that $n = m^2$ for some $m \in \mathbb N$?
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Hint: Try $n=8$. $\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ $