Can we determine convergence without evaluating this improper integral? $$\int_0^\infty {\frac{x^{2n - 1}}{{\left( x^2 + 1 \right)}^{n + 3}}\,dx}\quad\quad n\geq 1\;,\; n\in\mathbb{Z}$$
When trying to bound the integrand, relating a known function, the integral does not converge.
But when I use the software package Maple I see that the integral converges to: $$\int_0^\infty {\frac{x^{2n - 1}}{{\left( x^2 + 1 \right)}^{n + 3}}\,dx}=\frac{1}{{\left( {n + 1} \right)\left( {n + 2} \right)n}}$$
Evaluating it is not difficult, but I want to know if you can determine convergence (delimiting the integrand) without evaluating such an improper integral.
By equivalents: $$\frac{x^{2\;n - 1}}{(x^2 + 1)^{n + 3}}\sim_{\infty}\frac{x^{2\;n - 1}}{x^{2(n + 3)}}=\frac1{x^7}$$ and the latter is convergent since the exponent of $x$ in the denominator is $>1$.