Here it is asked whether for every $k>1$, there is a prime $p$ and $w_1,w_2,\cdots ,w_k>1$, such that $p$ divides $w_1^2+w_2^2+\cdots +w_k^2$, but none of the summands.
Can we prove there is a solution for every $k$, if the $w$s must be pairwise distinct ? The prime $p$ need not be the same for different $k$s.
Yes. Let $p$ be any prime dividing $k$ (it exists since $k > 1$). Then set $w_1 = p + 1, \: w_2 = 2p + 1, \: \dots, \: w_k = kp + 1$ (in general, $w_i = ip + 1$).
Now, clearly $p \nmid w_i$ and the $w_i$'s are pairwise distinct. Moreover, $$w_1^2 + w_2^2 + \cdots + w_k^2 \equiv \underset{k \: \text{times}}{\underbrace{1 + \cdots + 1}} = k \equiv 0 \pmod{p}$$ Thus $p \mid w_1^2 + \cdots + w_k^2$.