No. The relation $q\equiv -p \pmod{n}$ means that $p + q\equiv 0\pmod{n}$. To say that $q$ is inequivalent to $p$ means that $q\not\equiv p\pmod{n}$; here, $q$ could be any of the $n-1$ values aside from $p\pmod{n}$.
7
Bumbble Comm
On
Consider this:
3 is not cong. to -1 mode 6 and 3 is not cong. to +1 mode 6.
No. The relation $q\equiv -p \pmod{n}$ means that $p + q\equiv 0\pmod{n}$. To say that $q$ is inequivalent to $p$ means that $q\not\equiv p\pmod{n}$; here, $q$ could be any of the $n-1$ values aside from $p\pmod{n}$.