I already know that I can't swap the position of the quantifier and expected it to be equivalence. However, I wonder if it is actually equivalence for some special cases.
Example: Let Q(x,y) denote "x has sent a message to y.", domain for both x and y is all student in your class.
∃x∀yQ(x,y) means: There is a student in your class send a message to all students in your class.
∀y∃xQ(x,y) means: Every student in your class has been sent a message by a student.
Doesn't the translation of these 2 statements seem to carry the same information, and is it just a different way of saying the same thing? Or is there something that I fail to realize?
These do not convey the same information. $\exists x \forall y Q(x, y)$ means "there exists a single student who has sent a message to everyone in the class". $\forall y \exists x Q(x, y)$ means "every student in the class has been sent a message by someone".
In the former, there is one choice of $x$ that satisfies $Q(x, y)$ for all $y$, meaning that there is a single student who has been messaging everyone in class.
In the latter, for each $y$ we can find an $x$ that satisfies $Q(x, y)$, but there's no guarantee that it will be the same $x$ for different choices of $y$, so maybe Sally received a message from Billy but Eve received one from Johnny.
If the former is true then the latter is also true (once we know that there's a student who sent messages to everyone, we know that everyone in the class received a message from someone), but it doesn't work the other way around.