$$( \neg P \equiv \forall x Fx) \; \lor \; \exists x(Fx \equiv P)$$
My friend and I have been trying to figure out how to show the validity by means of derivation, but we've gotten no where.
$$( \neg P \equiv \forall x Fx) \; \lor \; \exists x(Fx \equiv P)$$
My friend and I have been trying to figure out how to show the validity by means of derivation, but we've gotten no where.
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By Natural Deduction.
1) $\forall x Fx$ --- assumed
2) $\lnot P$ --- assumed [a] from $\lnot P \lor P$
3) $\lnot P \to \forall x Fx$ --- from 1) by $\to$-intro
4) $\forall x Fx \to \lnot P$ --- from 1) and 2) by $\to$-intro
5) $\lnot P \leftrightarrow \forall x Fx$ --- from 3) and 4) by $\leftrightarrow$-intro
7) $P$ --- assumed [b] from $\lnot P \lor P$
8) $Fx \to P$ --- by $\to$-intro
9) $Fx$ --- from 1) by $\forall$-elim
10) $P \to Fx$ --- from 9) by $\to$-intro
11) $Fx \leftrightarrow Px$ --- from 8) and 10) by $\leftrightarrow$-intro
12) $∃x(Fx \leftrightarrow P)$ --- from 11) by $\exists$-intro
So far, we have derived the formula, using the following instance of LEM: $\lnot P \lor P$, under the assumption $\forall xFx$.
In a similar way, we can derive it under the assumption $\lnot \forall xFx$.
Thus, the result will follow from the instance of LEM: $\forall xFx \lor \lnot \forall xFx$.