I have the following type of inequality: $$ \int_0^{h(x)}\mathrm e^{f(t)} g(t) \mathrm dt> \int_0^{h(x)}\mathrm e^{f(t)} f(t) \mathrm dt $$ Question:
Can I cancel the term $\mathrm e^{f(t)}$, as it appears on both sides and the limits of integration are equal?
Thanks a lot
No, you can't. Although, you can claim that $$ \int_{0}^{h(x)} e^{f(t)}(g(t) - f(t)) dt > 0, $$ which is indeed not the same as $$ \int_{0}^{h(x)} g(t) - f(t) dt > 0. $$ You can think of $e^{f(t)}$ as a weight-function.