The question is if in the Cantor sets general is needed that its measuare is 0 or not.
And in what book or books is there that definiton?
The question is if in the Cantor sets general is needed that its measuare is 0 or not.
And in what book or books is there that definiton?
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When people talk about the Cantor set, they very often have in mind the middle-thirds Cantor set, which does have Lebesgue measure $0$. This measure property is not part of the definition, however. Topologically, any non-empty compact, zero-dimensional metric space is a Cantor set, and given any non-negative real number $r$ there is a Cantor subset of the line of Lebesgue measure $r$. The Smith-Volterra Cantor set is an example of one with positive Lebesgue measure.