This is an exercise in Naive Set Theory by P. R. Halmos.
If $\text{card }A=a$, what is the cardinal number of the set of all one-to-one mappings of $A$ onto itself? What is the cardinal number of the set of all countably infinite subsets of $A$?
It is easy to see that, for the first question, the cardinal number is less than or equal to $a^a$, and for any finite set the cardinal number is $a!$; for the second one, the cardinal number is less than or equal to $2^a$, and for any finite set the cardinal number is $0$.
I guess for infinite sets the equality holds in both questions. Is that correct? Can anyone give some suggestions on what to do next?
Edit: As is suggested by Arthur, the second cardinal number is at most $a^\omega$.
If $|A|=a$ is infinite then the cardinal number of the set of all countably infinite subsets of $A$ is $a^\omega$.
The upper case is trivial because every subset can be represented by an ordered sequence and there are $|A|^\omega$ sequences.
Due to $a^2=a$, the set $\mathbb{Z}\times A$ is equivalent to $A$, so there is a bijection $\varphi:A\to (\mathbb{Z}\times A)$. So the set $A$ can be partitioned into infinitely many disjoint subsets, all of cardinality $a$: $$ A=\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty A_n; \quad |A_1|=|A_2|=\ldots=|A|=a. $$ Now there are $a^\omega$ distinct subsets that contain exactly one element of every $A_n$.