Can you tell me if the following claim and subsequent proof are correct? Thanks.
Claim: If $\alpha = \delta + 1$ is an infinite successor ordinal then $\sum_{\xi < \alpha } \kappa_\xi = \sum_{\xi < \delta} \kappa_\xi$.
Proof: Let $f: \delta + 1 \to \delta $ be a bijection. Then $f$ induces a bijection $F: \bigcup_{\xi < \alpha} \kappa_\xi \times \{\xi \} \to \bigcup_{\xi < \delta} \kappa_\xi \times \{\xi \}$ so that $\sum_{\xi < \alpha} \kappa_\xi = \sum_{\xi < \delta} \kappa_\xi$.
Thanks for your help.
I think your claim is false, just let all $\kappa_\xi=\omega$ for $\xi\leq\omega$ and let $\kappa_{\omega+1}=\omega_1$. Then one sum is $\omega$, the other is $\omega_1$. In fact, you need to assume in your proof that you have bijections between different $\kappa_\xi$'s (which does not work in my example obviously).
It is quite easily shown that $\sum\limits_{\xi<\alpha}\kappa_\xi=\alpha\cdot\sup\limits_{\xi\leq\alpha}\kappa_\xi$. This makes clear that your claim is true if $\kappa_\delta$ is not bigger than $\sup\limits_{\xi<\delta}\kappa_\xi$.