Do $\{ (x, y) \in \mathbb{R}^2 \mid \left| x \right| + \left| y \right| = 1 \}$ and $\{ (x, y) \in \mathbb{R}^2 \mid x^2 + y^2 = 1 \}$ have the same cardinality?
One can draw a square in the two dimensional Cartesian plane, with vertices at $(1, 0), (0, 1), (-1, 0), (0, -1)$ to represent the first set. An origin centered unit circle circumscribing the square would represent the second set. The line joining the origin to each point on the circle intersects the square at a corresponding unique point. As such, it seems from a geometrical point of view that the two sets indeed have the same cardinality.
Is there a way to rigorously show/refute that the two sets have the same number of elements (cardinality)?
Define $$ \def\norm#1#2{\left\|#1\right\|_{#2}}\norm x1 := \def\abs#1{\left|#1\right|}\abs{x_1} + \abs{x_2} $$ and $$ \norm x2 := \left(x_1^2 + x_2^2\right)^{1/2} $$ Then your two sets are $S_1 := \{x \in \def\R{\mathbf R}\R^2 \mid \norm x1 = 1\}$ and $S_2 := \{x \in \R^2 \mid \norm x2 = 1\}$. Define maps $f \colon S_1 \to S_2$, $g \colon S_2 \to S_1$ by $$ f(x) := \frac{x}{\norm x2}, \qquad g(x) := \frac x{\norm x1} $$ Then $f\circ g = \mathrm{id}_{S_2}$ and $g \circ f = \mathrm{id}_{S_1}$, so $S_1$ and $S_2$ have the same cardinality.