I was reading this page on Wikipedia: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy%27s_integral_theorem
In the very end, it says that "we therefore find that both integrands (and hence their integrals) are zero". Why? Shouldn't it be a constant?
I was reading this page on Wikipedia: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy%27s_integral_theorem
In the very end, it says that "we therefore find that both integrands (and hence their integrals) are zero". Why? Shouldn't it be a constant?
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The author states that it is due to the Cauchy-Riemann equations that the integrands are zero.
And if the integrands are zero, then so are their corresponding integrals.