I'm reading some lecture notes on order statistics and I was hoping to get some clarification.
The highest draw of $z$ draws from the continuous distribution F is given by
1)$$ F^z(x)$$
Why is it $F(x)$ to the power of z? What does it look like when you multiply a distribution by itself? What would this look like in the case of a uniform distribution for instance?
and,
The pdf of the highest draw of $z$ draws from the continuous distribution F is given by
2) $$zF^{z-1}f(x)(x)$$
What is the intuition behind this? Perhaps with some clarification of 1), I could better understand 2)?

The term distribution here must mean distribution function. So, if $X$ is a random variable, the distribution function is $F(x)=P(X \le x)$. When we are to find the distribution function of the maximum value obtained in $z$ independent realizations of $X$ what we really want to know is the distribution function of the random variable $max(X_1,X_2,\dots,X_z)$, that is:$$P(X_1 \le x, X_2\le x,\dots, X_z ,\le x)$$ which, by virtue of independence is $$P(X_1 \le x) \cdot P(X_2 \le x) \cdots P(X_z \le x)$$ and this equals $F(x)^z$.
The probability density function in the continuous case is obtained by differentiating the distribution function, so taking derivatives of $F(x)^z$ and using $F^\prime(x)=f(x)$ you get the stated result.