Question. Prove or disprove: The center of $G/Z(G)$ is trivial for all finite groups $G$. (Here $Z(G)$ denotes the center of $G$.)
Attempt at a Proof. Assume the contrary that $G/Z(G)$ has a non-trivial center.
Let $g\notin Z(G)$ be such that $gZ(G)$ is in the center of $G/Z(G)$.
Then $$\boxed{xgx^{-1}\in gZ(G)}$$ for all $x\in G$.
We note that $xgx^{-1}=ygy^{-1}$ if and only if $xC_G(g)=yC_G(g)$, where $C_G(g)$ denotes the centralizer of $g$ in $G$.
Since $g\notin Z(G)$, we have $G\neq C_G(g)$.
I couldn't go any further.
Can someone help?
Do you know this result? $$G/Z(G) \cong \operatorname{Inn}(G)$$
You may want to look at $S_n$.
Edit: It fails for $n=6$, but it's not easy to see why $\{e\} <\operatorname{Inn}(S_6) < \operatorname{Aut}(S_6)$. But $S_6$ is a good counter-example.
To study more about $S_6$ and why $\{e\} < \operatorname{Inn}(S_6) < \operatorname{Aut}(S_6)$ read this wikipedia entry.