Consider $$ \sum^{\infty}_{k=1}(-1)^{k-1}\frac{1}{k} \tag{a} $$ where the Cesàro sum is $\lim_{k\to\infty}\frac{\sum^k_{j}s_j}{k}$ where $s_k$ is the $k$th partial sum. Is $(a)$ Cesàaro convergent?
We know that the alternating harmonic series converges (by the "normal") definition to $\ln2$, I am therefore tempted to say that the Cesàro sum is therefore 0 because $\lim_{k\to\infty}\ln2/k=0$. We know that if a series that consists on non-negative terms converges normally, then it is also Cesàro convergent, unfortunately that is not the case here. Any ideas?
If a series is convergent and its sum is $A$, then its Cesàro sum is convergent with same value $A$. So the limit is $$ \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n s_k = \ln 2 $$ where $s_k = \sum_{\ell=1}^k \frac{(-1)^{\ell-1}}{\ell}$ is the partial sum of the original series. (You seem to have the definition of Cesàro summation a bit confused in your question, the fact that $(\ln 2)/k\to 0$ is not relevant.)