Let $0 < \beta < \frac{1}{2}$. I cannot figure out which change of variable to use in order to prove that :
$$ \int_{0}^{+\infty} \frac{x^{-\beta}}{1+x} \; dx = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{x^{-\beta}}{1+x} (1+x^{2\beta-1}) \; dx $$
I have tried : $t=\frac{1}{1+x}$ and $t=\frac{x}{1+x}$ but it didn't work.
Split into two pieces; the integral is equal to
$$\int_0^1 dx \frac{x^{-\beta}}{1+x} + \underbrace{\int_1^{\infty} dx \frac{x^{-\beta}}{1+x}}_{x\mapsto 1/x} $$
which is then
$$\int_0^1 dx \frac{x^{-\beta}}{1+x} + \int_0^1 \frac{dx}{x^2} \frac{x^{\beta}}{1+(1/x)} = \int_0^1 dx \frac{x^{-\beta}}{1+x} + \int_0^1 dx \frac{x^{\beta-1}}{1+x}$$
which is, combining,
$$\int_0^1 dx \frac{x^{-\beta}}{1+x} \left ( 1+ x^{2 \beta-1}\right ) $$