Sorry this might be a silly question, but I'm kind of confused and really want to make sure I'm correct.
Let $v_1,v_2,\dots,v_n$ be $n$ i.i.d. random variables with the same range of $[\underline{v}, \overline{v}]$ and the same CDF $F(v_i)$. Let $G(v_1,v_2,\dots,v_n)$ be a function of the $n$ random variables.
Is it true that we can always freely change the order of the expectations?
For example, is it true that
$E_1[E_2[E_3[\dots[G(v_1,v_2,\dots,v_n)]\dots]]] =E_1[E_3[E_2[\dots[G(v_1,v_2,\dots,v_n)]\dots]]]$ ?
If not, what conditions do I need for equalities like the one above to be true?
Thanks everyone!
If $v_1,v_2,\ldots,v_n$ are $n$ i.i.d random variables with the same range and the same CDF $F(v_i)$ and $G(v_1,v_2,\ldots,v_n)$ is some function of them, then $G(v_1,v_2,\ldots,v_n)$ is itself a random variable, and its expected value $\operatorname{E}(G(v_1,v_2,\ldots,v_n))$ is a scalar, not a non-constant random variable. It has no randomness it it. The expected value of a constant is itself, so one could say $\operatorname{E}(\operatorname{E}(G(v_1,\ldots,v_n)))=\operatorname{E}(G(v_1,\ldots,v_n))$.
Since they are i.i.d., one could say the expected value is $$ \operatorname{E}(G(v_1,\ldots,v_n)) = \int\cdots\int G(x_1,\ldots,x_n)\,dF(x_1)\cdots dF(x_n) = c. $$ If one iterates the expectation one is merely integrating a constant over a space of measure $1$: $$ \operatorname{E}(c) = \int\cdots\int c\,dF(x_1)\cdots dF(x_n) = c. $$ (The same c.d.f. $F$ appears $n$ times here, since they are identically distributed, and $\Pr(X_1\le x_1\ \&\ \cdots\ \&\ X_n\le x_n)$ is simply the product $F(x_1)\cdots F(x_n)$ because $v_1,\ldots,v_n$ are independent.)
As "zoli" has pointed out in a comment, the meaning of your subscripts in "$\operatorname{E}_i$" is unclear at best.