Consider a finite-dimensional vector space $V$ over a field $\mathbb{F}$.Let $a,b\in\mathbb{F}$. State whether the following is true or not: If $\begin{pmatrix} b & a \\ 0 & b \end{pmatrix}$ is diagonalizable, then $a=0$.
To my confusion, the solution says that the statement is true, even though I thought I had found a counterexample:
Consider $V=\mathbb{C}^2$. Then the characteristic polynomial of the map given by the above matrix is $(X-b)^2+a=((X-b)+ai)((X-b)-ai)$ which gives us two distinct eigenvalues and hence $a$ can be an arbitrary complex number. Where have I made a mistake?
That matrix has a double eigenvalue, which is $b$. So, if it was diagonalizable, it would be similar to $\left[\begin{smallmatrix}b&0\\0&b\end{smallmatrix}\right]$. But that's a scalar matrix and the only matrix similar to a scalar matrix is that matrix itself. So, if your matrix is diagonalizable, $a=0$.