The sigmoid function $f(x) = \frac{1}{1+e^{-x}}$ has the property that $$f'(x) = f(x)(1-f(x))~~~ and ~~~f(0) = \frac 12$$
My question: is $f$ the unique function from $\mathbb R$ to $(0,1)$, perhaps up to some kind of scaling, that satisfies $f' = f(1-f)$?
I don't have much experience with differential equations so a nonlinear one like this is beyond anything I've done before.
In case it helps, my motivation for this is that this property makes the log likelihood a lot easier in a logistic regression, and I'm wondering if assuming that the inverse link function satisfies this property is equivalent to just taking it to be $f$.
But, $f(x)\in (0,1)$ we obtain $$ \ln (f)- \ln(1-f) =x+c\Longleftrightarrow \frac{f}{1-f} =ke^x \Longleftrightarrow f(x) =1-\frac{1}{1+ ke^x}$$
I am sure you can the $k$ by yourself.