Check for uniform convergence of a function series

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$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{n(1+(x-n)^2)}$

The question has a few parts and the one im struggling with is checking for uniform convergence on $[0,\infty)$.

I've managed to show that this series converges for any $x\in[0,\infty)$ and that the seriesconverges uniformly on every $[a,b]\subset[0,\infty)$. My intuition tells me that the series should be uniformly continuous, because even though it's terms are sometimes close to $\dfrac{1}{n}$ when $n$ is close to $x$, almost all terms are proportional to $\dfrac{1}{n^3}$.

I feel like I'm overlooking something obvious here. I would appreciate any hints.