Check my proof of "overspill" in non-standard models of Peano arithmetic.

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Proposition

Let $\mathcal{M}$ be a nonstandard model of Peano arithmetic, $\phi(v,\bar{w})$ a formula in the language of arithmetic, and $\bar{a} \in \mathbb{M}$. Show that if $\mathcal{M} \models \phi(n,\bar{a})$ for all $n < \omega$, then there is an infinite $c \in \mathbb{M}$ s.t. $\mathcal{M} \models \phi(c,\bar{a})$.

My Proof

Let $\mathcal{N}$ be the standard model of Peano arithmetic, and $\pmb{PA}$ the theory of Peano arithmetic so that $\mathcal{N} \models \pmb{PA}$; additionally, we know by definition $\mathcal{M} \models \pmb{PA}$. Suppose for the sake of contradiction that there exists a nonstandard model $\mathcal{M}$ so that $\mathcal{M} \models \phi(n,\bar{a})$ but $\mathcal{M} \not\models \phi(c,\bar{a})$. Since $\mathcal{M} \models \pmb{PA}$, $\mathcal{M} \models \phi(0,\bar{a})$ and by the assumption that $\mathcal{M} \models \phi(n,\bar{a})$ for all $n < \omega$, we know $\mathcal{M} \models \forall x (\phi(x,\bar{a}) \Rightarrow \phi(x + 1, \bar{a}))$. Hence by the induction axiom of $\pmb{PA}$:

$$Ind(\phi) := (\phi(0) \wedge \forall x(\phi(x) \Rightarrow (x+1))) \Rightarrow \forall x \phi(x),$$

we know $\mathcal{M} \models \forall x (\phi(x,\bar{v}))$, therefore $\mathcal{M} \models \phi(c,\bar{a})$. But this contradicts our hypothesis and we conclude: $$\mathcal{M} \models \phi(c,\bar{a}).$$

My Problem

My primary concern is whether I can use the induction principle of Peano arithmetic to argue that I can "reach" this $c$ by induction. Since as I understand, this $c$ lies beyond $\omega$.

Additionally, is there another way to prove the proposition without invoking the details of Peano Arithmetic?

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There are 4 best solutions below

2
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The induction principle is OK in $\mathcal M$, but its hypothesis is not necessarily satisfied in your situation. You inferred from (1) $\mathcal M\models\phi(n,\bar a)$ for all $n<\omega$ that (2) $\mathcal M\models\forall x\,(\phi(x,\bar a)\implies\phi(x+1,\bar a))$. Unfortunately, (1) does not imply (2). The error arises because the variable $x$ in (2) ranges over the whole universe of $\mathcal M$, not just over numbers $n<\omega$.

Note also that, if your argument were correct, it would give that $\mathcal M\models\phi(c,\bar a)$ for all elements $c$ of $\mathcal M$. That conclusion is not in general right; the correct conclusion is that some infinite $c$ in $\mathcal M$ satisfies $\mathcal M\models\phi(c,\bar a)$. (One can do a bit better; there is some infinite $d$ in $\mathcal M$ such that $\mathcal M\models\phi(c,\bar a)$ for all $c\leq d$.)

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This is my current proof. It incorporates suggestions from comments above and elsewhere.

First recall that $\phi(x) \rightarrow \phi(x+1)$ is short hand for $\neg \phi(x) \vee \phi(x+1)$. Now suppose for some infinite $c$, we have $\mathcal{M} \models \neg\psi(c,\bar{a})$, then the statement:

$$\mathcal{M} \models \neg\psi(c,\bar{a}) \vee \mathcal{M} \models (c + 1, \bar{a}),$$

is true since the first statement of the disjunction is true by definition. But by definition:

$$\mathcal{M} \models \neg\psi(c,\bar{a}) \vee \mathcal{M} \models (c + 1, \bar{a}) \Rightarrow \mathcal{M} \models \psi(c,\bar{a}) \rightarrow \psi(c + 1, \bar{a}),$$

hence the implication is true for all infinite $c$. On the other hand, we know $\mathcal{M} \models \psi(n,\bar{a})$ for all $n < \omega$ so $\mathcal{M} \models \psi(n+1,\bar{a})$. Hence we have:

$$\mathcal{M} \models \neg\psi(n,\bar{a}) \vee \mathcal{M} \models (n + 1, \bar{a}) \Rightarrow \mathcal{M} \models \psi(n,\bar{a}) \rightarrow \psi(n + 1, \bar{a}),$$

where the term on the left hand side of of $\Rightarrow$ is true because the term to the right of the disjunction is true by assumption. But we know all terms in $\mathbb{M}$ is either of form $n < \omega$ or some infinite $c$, so we can say:

$$\forall x (\psi(x,\bar{a}) \rightarrow \psi(x+1,\bar{a})) \rightarrow \forall x \psi(x,\bar{a}).$$ Hence $\mathcal{M} \models \psi(c,\bar{a})$ for some infinite $c \in \mathbb{M}$.

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On

To me, Rick's proof is correct, but does not give enough details. Here is a complete proof. Let's assume we have a formula $\psi$ such that : $$\forall n < \omega, \mathcal{M} \vDash \psi(n)$$ Let's show that there exists a non standard integer satisfying $\psi$. By contradiction, we assume that all non standard integers do not satisfy $\psi$.

  1. We have $\mathcal{M} \vDash \psi (0)$. For $n < \omega$, we have $\mathcal{M} \vDash \psi(n+1)$, so we also have $\mathcal{M} \vDash \psi(n) \rightarrow \psi(n+1)$
  2. By hypothesis, for a non standard integer $b$ we have $\mathcal{M}\nvDash \psi(b)$, so, exfalso, we have $\mathcal{M} \vDash \psi(b) \rightarrow \psi(b+1)$ (the left side of implication is false).
  3. By induction hypothesis, that is true in $\mathcal{M}$ as it is a model of Peano's arithmetic, we have $\forall x, \mathcal{M} \vDash \psi(x)$, which contradicts our hypothesis. So there exists at least one non standard integer satisfying $\psi$.

One can easily extend this proof to show that once we have $\mathcal{M} \vDash \psi(a)$ for some-non standard integer $a$, then we have $\forall b < a, \mathcal{M} \vDash \psi(b)$.

Have a good day !

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On

Below is a more "positive" version of the Overspill Lemma, which does not require a proof by contradiction which slightly eases the proof.

A $\mathsf{PA}$ model $\mathcal{M}$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{N}$ if and only if there is a formula $\varphi(x)$ such that $e < \omega \iff \mathcal{M} \vDash \varphi(e)$ for every $e \in \mathcal{M}$.

Proof: $(\Longrightarrow)$ If $\mathcal{M} \cong \mathbb{N}$ then there is indeed such a formula $\varphi(x)$, namely $x = x$.

$(\Longleftarrow)$ Assume there is a formula $\varphi(x)$ with $e < \omega \iff \mathcal{M} \vDash \varphi(e)$, then note that we have:

  • $0 < \omega$ and therefore $\mathcal{M} \vDash \varphi(0)$.
  • Obviously we have $e < \omega \Rightarrow e + 1 < \omega$, which is equivalent to $\mathcal{M} \vDash \varphi(e) \Rightarrow \mathcal{M} \vDash \varphi(e+1)$ by our assumption. Overall this shows $\mathcal{M} \vDash \forall x \; (\, \varphi(x) \to \varphi(x+1) \,)$.

Together with the induction principle the above bullet points imply the truth of $\mathcal{M} \vDash \forall x \; \varphi(x)$, further giving us $$ \mathcal{M} \vDash \forall x \; \varphi(x) \iff \forall e \in \mathcal{M} : \mathcal{M} \vDash \varphi(e) \iff \forall e \in \mathcal{M} : e < \omega $$ showing that all of the elements in $\mathcal{M}$ are standard numbers, i.e. $\mathcal{M} \cong \mathbb{N}$. $\hspace{1em} \Box$


  • Institutionistically, the above proof establishes a stronger version of Overspill.
  • The usual Overspill Lemma is implied by the contrapostion of the above constructive result.
  • $e < \omega$ should be understood as $\exists \, n \in \mathbb{N} \; (e = S^n 0)$.