Proposition
Let $\mathcal{M}$ be a nonstandard model of Peano arithmetic, $\phi(v,\bar{w})$ a formula in the language of arithmetic, and $\bar{a} \in \mathbb{M}$. Show that if $\mathcal{M} \models \phi(n,\bar{a})$ for all $n < \omega$, then there is an infinite $c \in \mathbb{M}$ s.t. $\mathcal{M} \models \phi(c,\bar{a})$.
My Proof
Let $\mathcal{N}$ be the standard model of Peano arithmetic, and $\pmb{PA}$ the theory of Peano arithmetic so that $\mathcal{N} \models \pmb{PA}$; additionally, we know by definition $\mathcal{M} \models \pmb{PA}$. Suppose for the sake of contradiction that there exists a nonstandard model $\mathcal{M}$ so that $\mathcal{M} \models \phi(n,\bar{a})$ but $\mathcal{M} \not\models \phi(c,\bar{a})$. Since $\mathcal{M} \models \pmb{PA}$, $\mathcal{M} \models \phi(0,\bar{a})$ and by the assumption that $\mathcal{M} \models \phi(n,\bar{a})$ for all $n < \omega$, we know $\mathcal{M} \models \forall x (\phi(x,\bar{a}) \Rightarrow \phi(x + 1, \bar{a}))$. Hence by the induction axiom of $\pmb{PA}$:
$$Ind(\phi) := (\phi(0) \wedge \forall x(\phi(x) \Rightarrow (x+1))) \Rightarrow \forall x \phi(x),$$
we know $\mathcal{M} \models \forall x (\phi(x,\bar{v}))$, therefore $\mathcal{M} \models \phi(c,\bar{a})$. But this contradicts our hypothesis and we conclude: $$\mathcal{M} \models \phi(c,\bar{a}).$$
My Problem
My primary concern is whether I can use the induction principle of Peano arithmetic to argue that I can "reach" this $c$ by induction. Since as I understand, this $c$ lies beyond $\omega$.
Additionally, is there another way to prove the proposition without invoking the details of Peano Arithmetic?
The induction principle is OK in $\mathcal M$, but its hypothesis is not necessarily satisfied in your situation. You inferred from (1) $\mathcal M\models\phi(n,\bar a)$ for all $n<\omega$ that (2) $\mathcal M\models\forall x\,(\phi(x,\bar a)\implies\phi(x+1,\bar a))$. Unfortunately, (1) does not imply (2). The error arises because the variable $x$ in (2) ranges over the whole universe of $\mathcal M$, not just over numbers $n<\omega$.
Note also that, if your argument were correct, it would give that $\mathcal M\models\phi(c,\bar a)$ for all elements $c$ of $\mathcal M$. That conclusion is not in general right; the correct conclusion is that some infinite $c$ in $\mathcal M$ satisfies $\mathcal M\models\phi(c,\bar a)$. (One can do a bit better; there is some infinite $d$ in $\mathcal M$ such that $\mathcal M\models\phi(c,\bar a)$ for all $c\leq d$.)