Show the following are equivalent:
- Every set can be well-ordered
- $\forall S[0\notin S\rightarrow\exists C:S\rightarrow\bigcup S\land(\forall Y\in S(C(Y)\in Y))]$
So I just prove the equivalence between:
- X can be well-ordered
- There is a $C:(P(X)\backslash \{0\})\rightarrow X$ such that $\forall Y\subseteq X(Y\neq 0\rightarrow C(Y)\in Y)$
I feel it is the two equivalance are very similar, but I'm not too sure these two can relate to each other and assist the proof of the first one.
Each member of $S$ is a subset of $\bigcup S$, and the empty set is not a member of $S$. So $S$ is a subset of $P(X)\setminus\{0\}$. So you can just restrict your choice function on that to $S$.